Greg Arehart
Well Known Member
I had an event (don't want to call it an "incident") today that made me wonder about runway "ownership." I think I know the answer but here's what happened. I taxiied out to the runway and backtaxied to the end of runway 16 (no taxiway here). As I started taxiing onto the runway, I announced my intentions. A bonanza driver then announced that he was 2.6 out from the airport, planning on landing. I told him that I was taxiing down the runway and would get out of the way as soon as possible. I turned around at the end of the runway and was running up the engine when - whoosh - overhead, the guy just lands over the top of me. Note that there is a displaced threshold at this airport, and he did land beyond the threshold. But it did kind of scare the pejesus out of me and my first-time-flying-in-a-little-airplane passenger to see this guy come in only maybe 40 feet above us.
So, I was always taught that whoever is on the runway "owns" the runway completely until that aircraft is either in the air (on takeoff) or clear of the active runway (on landing). [For the record, this is a non-towered airport.] I thought this guy should have either gone around or otherwise delayed his landing. Am I correct?
Cheers, and happy new year.
Greg
So, I was always taught that whoever is on the runway "owns" the runway completely until that aircraft is either in the air (on takeoff) or clear of the active runway (on landing). [For the record, this is a non-towered airport.] I thought this guy should have either gone around or otherwise delayed his landing. Am I correct?
Cheers, and happy new year.
Greg